Commentary on Plato's Apology (26b--31a)

Socrates and the charge of impiety
At 26b, Socrates inquires about the "terms of the indictment" against him, asking Meletus whether it is Socrates' alleged teaching the young "to believe in new deities instead of the gods recognized by the state" which allegedly corrupts the minds of the young. Meletus allows that this "is precisely" what he maintains. Of course, much could be made and has been made here about Meletus' claiming that it is Socrates' impiety that corrupts the young. In particular, if one takes this to mean that Socrates' impiety is the ONLY thing that Meletus takes to be Socrates' corrupting influence then making a case for Socrates' innocence is rendered a much tidier matter, for one need only argue that Socrates makes a convincing case for his not being impious. More importantly, such a reading seems to threaten my claim that Socrates' practicing of his elenchus provides the jurors with sufficient grounds to find him guilty of corrupting the young.

My response is, first, that there is no good reason to think that Meletus contends that Socrates' impiety is all there is to Socrates' corruption of the young.  The fact that Meletus allows that Socrates' impiety corrupts the young is "precisely what he maintains", is obviously compatible with claiming that Socratic beliefs and behaviors other than his impiety corrupt the young. Meletus might also contend that Socrates' elenchic activities are a by-product of Socrates' impious beliefs or that Socrates has on occasion been known to ridicule the gods of the state in an attempt to demonstrate an interlocutor's ignorance. The bottom line here is that it is at best lazy and sneaky, and at worst underhanded, for either Socrates or his supporters to think that establishing that Socrates is not "impious" is sufficient to establish that he does not corrupt the young, and thus establish his innocence of the charges before the Athenian court. As I have already urged, Socrates seems already to have provided the jury with sufficient evidence to conclude he is a corrupter with his "confession" that he buttonholes his fellow Athenians, reveals them to be ignorant of virtue, generates their ire and leads the young to mimic this behavior. As such, not much really hangs on Socrates being successful or not in establishing that he is not impious. However, I don't believe that Socrates makes a very good case for him not being impious.

Socrates' first step here is to ask Meletus whether the charge is that Socrates believes in gods different from the usual ones or whether Socrates is a complete atheist, someone who believes in no gods at all, and teaches others to do the same. Meletus claims that Socrates is a complete atheist. Socrates' response is notable:

You surprise me, Meletus. What is your object in saying that? Do you suggest that I do not believe that the sun and moon are gods, as is the general belief of all mankind? (26d).

Meletus answers by saying that Socrates does not believe this and claims that according to Socrates, "the sun is a stone and the moon a mass of earth." (26d). Socrates' response is anything but a straightforward declaration of belief that the sun and moon are gods. I'm never sure what to say here. On the one hand, it is disheartening to see a famous philosopher avoid the opportunity to decisively declare that the sun is a stone and the moon a mass of earth. (Of course, some there are who could declare that being a stone or a mass of earth is not incompatible with being a god. They have a wider notion of god than I do however.). On the other hand, Socrates doesn't declare himself a fan of the usual stories about gods. Indeed, throughout his entire discussion of this matter, one never finds Socrates straightforwardly declaring that he believes in gods or believes in the gods of the state. One suspects that the lack of any such straightforward declaration went a long way toward convincing the jury that Socrates is impious, as well as someone who prefers, as we would put it, Clintonesque answers to questions that ought to be answered with a simple yes or no. (Whatever one's politics, it should be admitted that Clinton rightly deserves to be the poster child of slick and evasive claims and answers to questions). It is this fact, i.e., Socrates' tortured treatment and discussion of the atheist question, that renders any attempt to defend Socrates against his accusers otiose, a house of cards, and nothing more than an academic exercise in the worst sense of the term.

Socrates' refusal or inability to simply say, "I believe in gods", or "I believe in the gods of the state", or anything of the sort, is the important message to be taken from this section of the Apology and it is no doubt the message that the jury used to rightfully ignore the success or failure of any Socratic "line of reasoning" on the matter. Indeed, not only does Socrates use a line of reasoning when a line of reasoning is not to the point, but Socrates' use of a line of reasoning is incriminating. Small wonder then that attempts to defend Socrates in the atheist matter appeal only to the details of Socrates' "discussion", thereby ignoring the elephant in the room, viz., the fact that Socrates sings and dances his way around the entire matter and nowhere directly declares his belief in gods.

Textually speaking, Socrates "reply" to Meletus begins with an unbroken chain of five QUESTIONS for Meletus, including such pertinent and relevant gems as, "Do you imagine that you are prosecuting Anaxagoras . . . ", and ". . . do you assume [the jury] to be so illiterate as not to know that the writings of Anaxagoras . . . are full of theories like these?" (26d). Socrates' complete evasion of the issue ends with his repeating the question, "Do I believe in no god?", to Meletus. Meletus says that's correct; Socrates believes in no god at all. Socrates' "reply" to this begins with an ad hominem, plain and simple, which is followed up with the claim that Meletus is contradicting himself. Socrates then asks the jury to examine "the line of reasoning" which leads him to this conclusion.

At this point, Socrates elicits agreement on the claim (by appeal to analogies about humans, horses and musicians, which analogies are not needed to establish such an obvious claim) that anyone who believes in supernatural activities also believes in supernatural beings. Socrates then claims that Meletus "solemnly swore in [his] affidavit" that Socrates believes in and teaches others to believe in supernatural activities. Socrates then claims:

But if I believe in supernatural activities, it follows inevitably that I also believe in supernatural beings. Is that not so?
. . . Do we not hold that supernatural beings are either gods or the children of gods? Do you agree or not? [Meletus says, "Certainly"]. Then if I believe in supernatural beings, as you assert, if these supernatural beings are gods in any sense, we shall reach the conclusion which I mentioned just now when I said that you were testing my intelligence for your own amusement, by stating first that I do not believe in gods, and then again that I do, since I believe in supernatural beings. (27c-d).

This passage is followed by Socrates repetition of the obvious (viz., belief in supernatural or divine activities implies belief in supernatural or divine beings), Socrates insisting that he has established the impurity of Meletus' motives in bringing the charges against him, and other irrelevancies. As a juror, I ought to be wondering why Socrates insists on wasting my time trying to show that Meletus has allegedly contradicted himself when, one, Meletus has done no such thing, and two, it's doubly irrelevant anyway. Why should I care whether Meletus has contradicted himself, assuming he has, by claiming, on the one hand, Socrates believes in "new deities" and on the other, Socrates believes in no gods at all? For either offense is sufficient to make the case for Socrates being impious. (Scholars there are who insist that this is not so. I am not convinced by their claims, as they are necessarily based on some serious speculation.).

So please, Socrates, deny both parts of the either/or; otherwise you are wasting our time. But even if one believes that only the complete atheist charge is punishable, Socrates' claim that Meletus is guilty of talking nonsense does nothing to free Socrates of the burden of satisfying the jury that he is not a complete atheist. Finally, it must be remembered that Meletus' claim that Socrates is a complete atheist is made in response to a request from Socrates for a clarification of the indictment, which accused Socrates of teaching the young to believe in new deities. Under questioning, Meletus says that he claims Socrates is an atheist, who believes in no gods at all.

By my lights, this clarification supersedes any previous claims by Meletus and it is this claim that Socrates ought to answer. Alas, he does no such thing and contents himself with showing merely that Meletus' initial indictment is seemingly at odds with Meletus' clarification of it. Now this is a nice ploy if you can get away with it, viz., elicit agreement on one of your opponent's claims, then ask him to clarify whether the claim says this or that, and when he answers, "That", contend the "That" answer conflicts with a "This" reading of the claim, reminding the opponent that he did say "This", didn't he? Conclude that your opponent is playing games and the ploy is complete. And to think there are people willing to defend Socrates here. It's enough to make one blush for the profession.

Digression One (28a-30c)
After telling the jury that "[a]s a matter of fact . . . I do not feel that it requires much defense to clear myself of Meletus' accusation", and, "[w]hat I have said already is enough", Socrates repeats his claim that it will be "the slander and jealousy of a very large section of the people" that will bring about his destruction, if anything does (28a), Socrates imagines someone asking: "Do you feel no compunction, Socrates, at having followed a line of action which puts you in danger of the death penalty?" (28b). Socrates replies by insisting that no man "worth anything ought to spend his time weighing up the prospects of life and death." According to Socrates, a man of worth "has only one thing to consider in performing any action -- that is, whether he is acting rightly or wrongly, like a good man or a bad one." (ibid.).  At first blush, Socrates' claims appear to be beyond reproach but a closer examination reveals that Socrates is advocating a flawed, or at least, problematic policy.

For starters, I assume that when Socrates says no good man "weighs up the prospects of life and death", he is speaking of the good man's prospects for life and death, rather than that of others. Now, may it not be the case that "the good man" on occasion weighs up the prospects of his life and death in considering what to do? Or does Socrates believe that the good man never considers such a thing? If Socrates believes this then Socrates has, implausibly by my lights, made not considering the prospects of one's life and death a necessary condition for being a good man.

Relatedly, is Socrates claiming that one's determination of whether it is right or wrong to act in a particular way is always independent of the question of the prospects of one's life and death? If so, I see difficulties. To take an obvious case, if I am a military commander who is convinced that my expertise is indispensable and irreplaceable in a campaign then in considering a particular course of action for myself and my troops, I must take the prospects of my life and death into account in determining the right thing to do. It seems then that there are occasions where the determination of whether I am acting rightly or wrongly requires me to consider the prospects of my life and death. Indeed, Socrates could be said (and is said, e.g., in the Crito, by Crito himself) to be doing the wrong thing in not taking steps to prevent his execution. Such a claim assumes, clearly, that Socrates has failed to appreciate that a particular course action could be correct precisely because it is the only way for him to avoid his death. Does Socrates' principle reject this possibility?

We can all allow that in the vast majority of actions which we could label right or wrong, there is no difficulty in agreeing with Socrates that one's only consideration in deciding whether to do a particular such act ought to be whether one is acting rightly or wrongly (always choosing to act rightly, of course!), with no consideration of one's prospect of life or death. But we must appreciate that this is because in the vast majority of such cases, doing the right thing does nothing to jeopardize the life of one who does it. In short, we can and ought to ignore the prospects of our life and death in the vast majority of our actions precisely because such prospects are irrelevant to the question of the rightness or wrongness of the action. Socrates claims that on occasion one may be convinced of the rightness of a particular action while also appreciating that doing that action is very dangerous, personally, even life-threatening. In such cases, says Socrates, one ought to go ahead and do what one believes is right, ignoring the prospect of death. Such is the behavior of the good man, the man of worth. This is made clear at 28d, where Socrates says:

The truth of the matter is this, gentlemen. Where a man has once taken up his stand, either because it seems best to him or in obedience to his orders, there I believe he is bound to remain and face the danger, taking no account of death or anything else before dishonor.

Ignoring for now the clause, "or in obedience to his orders" (which opens a big can of worms), Socrates offers us the case of someone antecedently convinced that a particular action (or better, course of action) is the right one and insists that in such a case, one ought not allow the prospect of personal harm, including death, to dissuade one from persevering in that course of action. This principle seems not to cover cases where the determination of the right thing to do is, or can be tied, to the prospects of harm to oneself. Or else it is ruling out such cases entirely. If the latter, I believe that Socrates is offering us an untenable doctrine. There are surely cases where one comes to appreciate that what seemed the best course of action at a particular time no longer seems so at a later time, precisely because one comes to see that staying the course is suicidal. It is surely not ignoble to give up on a suicidal course of action, especially one that has no hope of being useful. (Recall Mill's insistence that martyrdom for its own sake is a fine example of what humans can do but not of what they ought to do). If Socrates thinks it is ignoble, he is simply wrong.

There are, to be sure, difficulties here with respect to conceptions and descriptions of behaviors and reasons. For example, I may be convinced of the rightness of defending a particular city from vandals. I offer then to defend the city. Suppose I am ordered to defend an outpost at one corner of the city's boundary, thinking this right. If I come to appreciate that I have been given inadequate means to defend my outpost, I may desert the outpost, seeking to defend the city in another quarter. Have I violated Socrates' dictum? It depends on how it is described. I haven't stopped defending the city, after all. But I have deserted my outpost, even though I thought defending my outpost was the right thing to do. Indeed, I may still believe it the right thing to do while also appreciating that I was ill-equipped to do it at the time. So I leave to come back and fight another day.

Surely this is not ignoble. This suggests that Socrates' dictum should include a line or two about when one's decision about what is best is made, and whether it is plausible for that decision to be altered in the light of new information and changing circumstances. Clearly there are cases where giving up on a course of action which seemed best, from a fear of harm or death, is ignoble, is blameworthy, is cowardly, etc. But there are also cases where one gives up on one's chosen course of action because the recognition of fear or death leads one to think the chosen course of action is no longer the best one, or can only be successful if taken up again at a later time.

But enough of these wormy general considerations, for there are others to consider.  Socrates is trying to defend his mission, as well as his decision to defend it. At 28d ff., Socrates declares that it would be inconsistent and shocking for him to let fear of death dissuade him from the task which he supposes and believes God appointed him for, viz., "the duty of leading the philosophical life, examining myself and others . . . ". (28e).  No complaints here but Socrates might allow himself to reconsider his belief that his mission is both god-given and worthwhile.  Socrates goes on to say that the chief reason not to let fear of death dissuade one from a course of action is because fear of death is a form of Socratic sin, viz., thinking that one knows what one does not know, viz., that it is certain that death is the greatest evil. Socrates insists that "[n]o one knows with regard to death whether it is not really the greatest blessing that can happen to a man . . ." (29a), and that no one possesses "any real knowledge of what comes after death" (29b).

One problem with Socrates' reasoning here is that is certain, (or as certain as humans can have it) that death results in the cessation of our earthly activities (indeed, this is a tenet of all major religions, yes?), and I am also certain that I enjoy the vast majority of my earthly activities. To suppose that my death will result in my being given an existence that will lead me to conclude that my earthly activities were not enjoyable or worth extending is absurd. Indeed, it is clear that an enjoyable afterlife, if such there be, will have to have something in common with our earthly life, including especially interaction with others in the afterlife. It's not Pollyannish (nor even nonBuddhist) to declare that human existence is not suffering but enjoyable and that our death is not a good thing, for the simple reason that it ends our earthly activities. (Aside: if one believes in reincarnation, this is not really a life better than the one we have now on Earth but rather an endless opportunity for something, but certainly not ME, to continue doing earthly activities).

Socrates also declares that he does "know that to do wrong and to disobey my superior, whether God or man, is wicked and dishonorable" (29b). Since abandoning his mission from God would be to disobey God, Socrates says he knows it is wrong to abandon his mission. Surely though the principle above is problematic. Unless one assumes, question-beggingly, that the commands of one's superior are always right, blind obedience to one's superior could result in one doing some very wrong actions indeed. And to see this one need look no further than the case of Abraham and Isaac from the Bible, or the case of Nazi Germany. Disobeying one's superior is not always wrong for one's superior can be wrong.  A sane person might also suggest to Socrates that it is a bit foolish to risk one's life on something that may not really be a command from God.  Why is Socrates so certain that God has chosen him for this philosophical mission?

Most importantly here, Socrates explicitly rejects as unacceptable a deal which would acquit him if he agrees to "stop philosophizing", claiming that he owes a greater obedience to God than to the jury.  Socrates reiterates his resolve in criticizing his fellow Athenians for putting money, reputation, honor, (trivialities, according to Socrates), above truth, understanding and tendance of their souls (a matter of supreme importance, according to Socrates).  Socrates also claims "no greater good has ever befallen [Athens] than my service to my God." (30a). Socrates says he spends his time trying to persuade young and old to make their first and chief concern "the highest welfare of your souls" rather than their bodies and possessions. "Wealth, says Socrates, does not bring goodness, but goodness brings wealth and every other blessing, both to the individual and to the state." (30b).  As I said before, Socrates sounds a lot like a street corner preacher!.  Socrates adds that such is his message and if he corrupts the young then this message must be harmful to them.

It is not easy to criticize Socrates' understanding and account of his message and mission. It sounds odd to declare Socrates' self-described soul-tending mission to be corrupting. It can of course be said to be excessive, as being the message of a zealot, etc. That is, Socrates can be accused of regarding anything other than soul-tending activities (whatever these might be) as evil and blameworthy, or at least as trivial and unimportant, which is a view that only a religious zealot could or ought to take seriously. But surely religious zealots can be tolerated so long as they behave themselves, i.e., so long as they don't try to harm those who don't give religious activities pride of place in their lives. So labeling Socrates' self-described mission, "corrupting" does seem problematic.

Socrates:  God's Gift to Athens
One interesting point here however is that Socrates' claims about the content of his message, along with his boast that he will not alter his conduct "even if I have to die a hundred deaths" (30e), apparently arouses the ire of the jurors, for Socrates' boast is followed by his insisting on order in the court and a reminder that he asked for a hearing without interruption. Socrates also warns that he will say something else "which may provoke a storm of protest" (30e). Clearly Socrates has poked the jurors in spots that they don't like. Clearly the jury balks at Socrates' contention that his message is that of telling his fellow Athenians that tendance of the soul is the most important task of life, and chastising those who put money and honor above the soul. I suspect that the jurors resent Socrates' suggestion in large part because they find it tendentious. That is, not only do they believe that they do not deserve Socratic "chastising" (because they don't think they are leading lives that deserve criticism, either because they disagree with Socrates that soul-tending trumps all other activities or because they believe they are leading lives that put soul-tending first), they are also taken aback at Socrates' claim that his mission is simply that of the importance of soul-tending.

I allow that this claim is speculative and controversial. Most philosophers would regard it as a given that Socrates believes that tending the soul is the most important activity of life and that his mission consisted primarily of urging his fellow Athenians to tend their soul rather than be concerned with the material side of life. However, I believe that the jury balks at Socrates' self-description of his activities in large part because they don't believe that preaching the gospel of soul-tending has been a big part, if any part, of Socrates' work. On the contrary, Socrates' mission, they believe, has been that of showing that no one in Athens (indeed, no humans at all) was "genuinely" wise with respect to basic concepts like virtue, friendship, courage, piety, justice, etc. And so the jury balks at Socrates' description of himself as an advocate of soul-tending not only because they don't think it's a message they need to hear but also because they think it is false.

But Socrates is just warming up in his efforts to anger the jurors. At 30c-e, he says:

I assure you that if I am what I claim to be, and you put me to death, you will harm yourselves more than me. Neither Meletus nor Anytus can do me any harm at all; they would not have the power, because I do not believe that the law of God permits a better man to be harmed by a worse. No doubt my accuser might put me to death or have me banished or deprived of civic rights, but I do not think [these are great calamities]. I believe it is far worse to do what he is doing now, trying to put an innocent man to death. For this reason, gentlemen, so far from pleading on my own behalf, as might be supposed, I am really pleading on yours, to save you from misusing the gift of God by condemning me. . . . It is literally true, even if it sounds rather comical, that God has specially appointed me to this city, as though it were a large thoroughbred horse which because of its great size is inclined to be lazy and needs the stimulation of some stinging fly. It seems to me that God has attached me to this city to perform the office of such a fly, and all day long I never cease to settle here, there, and everywhere, rousing, persuading, reproving every one of you.

Several points are worth noting here. One, whether or not it is far worse to try to put an innocent man to death than it is to be put to death or banished or deprived of civic rights, it still seems obvious that the latter are harms and if they are done by a worse man to a better man, then Socrates' alleged "law of God is violated". Clearly Socrates fails to keep the very different notions of "doing more harm to X than to Y" and "doing harm to Y", separate. It is also absurd to suppose that no better man has ever been harmed by worse men. Not surprisingly, the only way to avoid having this be absurd is to accept other absurdities, like death, torture, banishment, robbery, and other obvious harms, are not harms at all, at least in cases where they are done by a worse to a better man!

Perhaps what Socrates really wishes to say is that anytime a better man is harmed by a worse man, the worse man is harmed more. That certainly seems to be more compatible with his other claims here, as well as Socratic principles generally. But this reading requires Socrates to give us some account of how the worse man is harmed by "trying to put an innocent man to death", or even by putting an innocent man to death, or banishing people, or stealing from them, etc. Given the facts of life, one would have to insist that the harm done is not obvious, not visible to the naked eye as it were. For it doesn't seem that "worse men" always and everywhere are obviously or visibly harmed by their harming of a "better man".

It is also tendentious for Socrates to describe Meletus or Anytus as "trying to put an innocent man to death". They are convinced that Socrates is not an innocent man. So they are trying to put a man they believe to be guilty to death. I find it implausible that it is "far worse" to try to execute an innocent man (or even to have succeeded in doing so) that one is convinced is guilty than it is to be executed, banished, deprived of civic rights, etc. Indeed, it's not wrong at all for one to try to execute a person one believes is guilty of a crime that merits execution. Socrates here unjustifiably imputes sinister motives to his accusers and once again assumes, rather than demonstrates, his innocence.

Finally, imagine yourself on a jury and the accused tells you that his defense is aimed at protecting you from "misusing" the gift of God, viz., himself, by condemning him. And the accused tells you, straight out, that he does perform the actions which are the source of his indictment, viz., his elenchus, but contends that the actions, far from meriting punishment, are in fact ordered by the gods and quite helpful to the city. In short, Socrates' defense consists of telling the jury that he is no corrupter and not impious not because he doesn't do the actions which his accusers believe to be corrupting but because he has been ordered by the gods to do those actions in order to make Athens a better place. Pardon the levity if levity it be but isn't this the same defense used by Son of Sam?


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Last modified September 17, 2011
JAH, Professor
Dept. of Philosophy